08/25/2013, 03:00 PM
I just read that over today and it makes a lot more sense a second time through.
I've been finding a lot of interesting paradoxes with fractional calculus and it must be my lack of rigor. This one and the function which if converges is its own derivative:
i.e:
\( \phi(s) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} cos(2\pi t) \frac{d^t}{ds^t}f(s) \, dt \)
I've been finding a lot of interesting paradoxes with fractional calculus and it must be my lack of rigor. This one and the function which if converges is its own derivative:
i.e:
\( \phi(s) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} cos(2\pi t) \frac{d^t}{ds^t}f(s) \, dt \)