04/22/2008, 02:50 AM
Gottfried Wrote:Hi -Gottfried, may I postulate that \( \exp^0(t)=t \) and \( \exp^{-1}(t)=0 \) ? In this case, will be any difference between definiitons (1) and (2)?
just read your very interesting article. However, I have one remark.
In Eq. 1.3) you define
(1)\( \hspace{24} \exp_a^z(t)= \exp_a(\exp_a^{^{z-1}}(t)) \)
But for the case z->inf we never have a starting condition.
Such a starting condition would be allowed by the alternative definition
(2)\( \hspace{24} \exp_a^z(t)=\exp_a^{^{z-1}}(\exp_a(t)) \)
So I think, it is better to define it this way.
(P.S. Does the number of replies I should answer grow as the Ackermann function of time, or just exponentially?)

