Problem with cauchy method ? tommy1729 Ultimate Fellow Posts: 1,918 Threads: 414 Joined: Feb 2009 02/16/2015, 01:51 AM The Cauchy method has the property/condition (assum it works) : exp(f(-1 +ai)) = f(ai) exp(f(ai)) = f(1+ai) for real a. But is that sufficient to conclude f(z+1) = exp(f(z)) ? Compare to x sin(x/2 pi) for integer x. However the answer is YES ITS SUFFICIENT. Because exp(f(-1 +ai)) - f(ai) = 0 and then use analytic continuation. But what about the theta wave ? How do we know we arrive at a (unique) solution that is bounded in the strip ? regards tommy1729 « Next Oldest | Next Newest »

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