05/05/2022, 11:01 PM
(03/23/2022, 03:19 AM)JmsNxn Wrote: ...
Where we have the identity: \(x<k>(x<k+1>y) = x<k+1> y+1\). Good ol fashioned hyper-operators.
...
You should be able to construct an implicit solution to the equation:
\[
x <s> (x<s+1>y) = x <s+1> y+1\\
\]
For all \(x \in \mathbb{C}/\mathcal{E}\) and \(y \in \mathcal{W} + \mathbb{Z}\)--where \(\mathcal{E}\) is measure zero in \(\mathbb{R}^2\).
I mean, this problem is really solved if you think of it implicitly. We are just varying \(\mu,\lambda\) until we find a solution to the above equation while we freely move \(s\). This is very fucking difficult to do. I have not done it, as this would require a good 20 pages of work, but it is definitely possible. I may come back to this, but for the moment my brain is switching to PDE/ODE territory, and this type of research is secondary.
Regards, James
But now you tell me you do not want left distributive ?
BUT That equation IS left distributive ?
So you do not want to satisfy that equation ??
Then why mention it and what do you want to satisfy ? And why ??
Im confused.

