03/24/2014, 09:12 PM
(08/11/2010, 04:28 PM)tommy1729 Wrote: i have been thinking about the following often :
how and when is a function a 'superfunction for two functions' and what degrees of freedom do we have ?
for instance
assume the following equation
f(x+1) = A(f(x))
f(x+i) = B(f(x))
and A and B are somewhat related : they commute of course and satisfy some equation ( e.g. A = sin(log(B)) )
i assume there is no freedom for f(z) apart from choosing f(0).
( once again , riemann mapping theorem and double periodic functions convinced me of that )
but its not so clear when we have a solution and when not.
also , could this be a usefull uniqueness criterion ?
its seems we need at least 3 criterions for a solution to exist :
1) A and B commute
2) A and B share the same fixpoints
3) its clear the superfunction of A and B is nonparadoxal at complex oo.
maybe 4 : 4) the superfunction becomes periodic or semi-periodic near complex oo. ( although that might follow from 3 )
regards
tommy1729
\( A(x)=f(f^{\circ -1}(x)+1) \)
and
\( B(x)=f(f^{\circ -1}(x)+i) \)
but this doesn't mean that \( A^{\circ i}(x)=B(x) \) should hold always?
Mother Law \(\sigma^+\circ 0=\sigma \circ \sigma^+ \)
\({\rm Grp}_{\rm pt} ({\rm RK}J,G)\cong \mathbb N{\rm Set}_{\rm pt} (J, \Sigma^G)\)
