(06/07/2013, 05:00 AM)JmsNxn Wrote: I've found an approach to showing that it satisfies the recursive identity, which is: \( x,y,z \in \mathbb{N}\,\,s_0 \in \mathbb{R} \)
\( x [s_0 + 1] (y-1) = z \)
\( x [s_0] z = x [s_0+1] y \)
The approach is a little tricky and I don't know how to explain it so clearly.
Isn't this condition equivalent to you old attempt to limit the recursion to a subset of the real?
In fact your condition for the recursion
\( a)\,x,y,z \in \mathbb{N}\,\,s_0 \in \mathbb{R} \)
\( b)\,x [s_0 + 1] (y-1) = z \)
\( c)\,x [s_0] z = x [s_0+1] y \)
translatable in
\( i)\, s_0 + 1 \in \mathbb{I}_{x,y-1} \)
\( ii)\,x [s_0] z = x [s_0+1] y \)
That bring me to ask you why you abandoned the study on the \( \mathbb{I} \) sets.
Anyways, even if you limit the recursion to ALL the \( \mathbb{I} \) sets you can work only on a countable subset of reals:
in other words most of the reals (\( 2^{\aleph_0} \) ) are out of the recursion.
PS: If was not clear, what I mean is:
if for your interpolation you can show that:
if \( a) \) and \( b) \) hold than \( c) \) holds (recursion)
then is the same that you proved for you interpolation this:
if \( i) \) holds than \( ii) \) holds
as you can see, if \( i) \) holds then your proof is valid only for a subset of reals.
Mother Law \(\sigma^+\circ 0=\sigma \circ \sigma^+ \)
\({\rm Grp}_{\rm pt} ({\rm RK}J,G)\cong \mathbb N{\rm Set}_{\rm pt} (J, \Sigma^G)\)
