10/23/2010, 07:57 PM
(10/22/2010, 11:27 AM)JJacquelin Wrote: I think that the conjecture is false.The solution for x in \( {}^{1000}x = 1000 \) is approximately 1.44467831224667 -> is not correct! but yes - \( {}^{1000}x = 1000 \Rightarrow \) x=1.44467829141456
First, the numerical computation have to be carried out with much more precision.
The solution for x in \( {}^{1000}x = 1000 \) is approximately 1.44467831224667 which is higher than e^(1/e)
The solution for x in \( {}^{10000}x = 10000 \) is approximately 1.4446796588047 which is higher than e^(1/e)
As n increases, x increasses very slowly.
But, in any case, x is higher than e^(1/e) = 1.44466786100977
Second, on a more theoretical viewpoint, if x=e^(1/e), the limit of \( {}^{n}x \) is e , for n tending to infinity. So, the limit isn't = n , as expected.
The solution for x in \( {}^{10000}x = 10000 \) is approximately 1.4446796588047 -> is not correct but yes - \( {}^{10,000}x = 10,000 \Rightarrow \) x=1.4446679658595034
you mistake!?!! eheheh! lool
\( {}^{100,000}x = 100,000 \Rightarrow \)x=1.444667862058778534938
therefore, the conjecture is NOT false!
I calculated the numbers corrects by program "pari/gp".

