04/12/2021, 11:26 PM
consider y = ln ln ln ... a1^a2^a3^ ... ^x.
Then when we put that into an equation we get
exp(exp(exp(...y) = a1^a2^a3^...^x.
We know both sides are nonzero so we can take ln on both sides
exp(exp(...y) = ln(a1)* a2^a3^...^x.
So what if ln(a1)*a2^a3^...^x = 1 ??
Lets assume y exists again.
Then the Lhs again has a log. AND THAT LOG IS NOT 0.
So we get a different branch.
So solving this equation is just a matter of taking the correct branches all the time ???
THAT seems too optimistic !?
Keep in mind that choosing the branches must be consistant with analyticity as well !
Taking ln one more time :
exp(...y) = ln(ln(a1)) + ln(a2) * a3^...^x.
How do we know y exists again ??
Here is a toy idea :
ln(ln(a1)) + ln(a2)*a3^..^x = a3^..^x'
This switch from x to x' makes us able to repeat the above.
Ofcourse this assumes an x' exists !!
Im aware I mentioned 2 things in the previous post about simplifying a log (analytic continuation , lower multiplicity ) and boundaries, but Im still confused by this.
For real numbers this all works nicely.
But for complex Im confused.
So I started thinking.
We could go the other direction ; THE INVERSE WAY ;
LET f(x) be a given function with a taylor series.
Now for a chosen set a_n we can inductively define :
f(x) = a_0 + exp( a_1 + exp( a_2 + exp( a_3 + ...
As long as it converges and as long as f(x) - a_0 , ln(f(x) - a_0) - a_1,... are nonzero.
This is in a sense the analogue of taylor series , infinite compositions and power towers.
So I think there must be a way to make this all formal.
regards
tommy1729
Tom Marcel Raes
Then when we put that into an equation we get
exp(exp(exp(...y) = a1^a2^a3^...^x.
We know both sides are nonzero so we can take ln on both sides
exp(exp(...y) = ln(a1)* a2^a3^...^x.
So what if ln(a1)*a2^a3^...^x = 1 ??
Lets assume y exists again.
Then the Lhs again has a log. AND THAT LOG IS NOT 0.
So we get a different branch.
So solving this equation is just a matter of taking the correct branches all the time ???
THAT seems too optimistic !?
Keep in mind that choosing the branches must be consistant with analyticity as well !
Taking ln one more time :
exp(...y) = ln(ln(a1)) + ln(a2) * a3^...^x.
How do we know y exists again ??
Here is a toy idea :
ln(ln(a1)) + ln(a2)*a3^..^x = a3^..^x'
This switch from x to x' makes us able to repeat the above.
Ofcourse this assumes an x' exists !!
Im aware I mentioned 2 things in the previous post about simplifying a log (analytic continuation , lower multiplicity ) and boundaries, but Im still confused by this.
For real numbers this all works nicely.
But for complex Im confused.
So I started thinking.
We could go the other direction ; THE INVERSE WAY ;
LET f(x) be a given function with a taylor series.
Now for a chosen set a_n we can inductively define :
f(x) = a_0 + exp( a_1 + exp( a_2 + exp( a_3 + ...
As long as it converges and as long as f(x) - a_0 , ln(f(x) - a_0) - a_1,... are nonzero.
This is in a sense the analogue of taylor series , infinite compositions and power towers.
So I think there must be a way to make this all formal.
regards
tommy1729
Tom Marcel Raes

