02/08/2021, 12:25 AM
ACK,
So this result is only true if \( \phi(t+\pi i) / t \to -1 \). The correct statement without this is,
\(
\psi_m(t,x) = \Omega_{j=1}^m e^{t-j-x}\bullet x\\
\)
Then,
\(
\psi_m(t+m,h_m(t)) = t+m\\
\)
Where since \( h_m\to\infty \) we really can say much, unless \( |h_m(t-m)|< M \) is bounded fixed \( t \) and \( m>0 \). Which, is doubtful.
So damn close.
So this result is only true if \( \phi(t+\pi i) / t \to -1 \). The correct statement without this is,
\(
\psi_m(t,x) = \Omega_{j=1}^m e^{t-j-x}\bullet x\\
\)
Then,
\(
\psi_m(t+m,h_m(t)) = t+m\\
\)
Where since \( h_m\to\infty \) we really can say much, unless \( |h_m(t-m)|< M \) is bounded fixed \( t \) and \( m>0 \). Which, is doubtful.
So damn close.
