(05/16/2017, 03:34 PM)sheldonison Wrote:(05/16/2017, 04:09 AM)JmsNxn Wrote: ... It easily follows from this that \( \log^{\circ n}(\lambda^n z + L) \) is fully monotone, it uniformly converges to the inverse Schroder function, and therefore the inverse Schroder function is a fully monotone function...Good luck with your paper. We need more rigorous iterated exponentiation papers.
I just wondered what your approach to show the sequence "uniformly converges". Is there an easy theorem, or did you want to go with a more complicated approach something like my lemma5? Just curious. Also, you probably meant \( \log_b^{\circ n}(\lambda^n z + L) \) where b is the tetration base.
Yeah, I meantt \( \log_b \). This is actually a well known result on how to represent the inverse Schroder function. Bo used it before, and that's how I first learnt about it.
Essentially if
\( f(z_0) = z_0 \) and \( 0 < |f'(z_0)| < 1 \), then not only does
\( \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{f^{\circ n}(z) - z_0}{\lambda^n} \to \Psi(z) \)
for \( |z- z_0|<\delta \), where \( \Psi \) is the Schroder function.
We also get that, if \( g = f^{-1} \)
\( \lim_{n\to\infty} g^{\circ n}(\lambda^n z + z_0) \to \Psi^{-1}(z) \)
for \( |z-z_0| < \delta \), for \( \delta \) sufficiently small. This is all you really need.

