Does tetration take the right half plane to itself?
#2
Of course, as soon as I post this I've essentially proved it using the Fourier expansion. Now I'm just hoping Sheldon comes on and can enlighten me a bit more as to why this works.


First and foremost

\( \alpha \uparrow^2 z = L - \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n \lambda^{nz} \)

where

\( \alpha^L = L \) and \( \lambda = \log(L) \)



If \( h(\lambda z) = \alpha^{h(z)} \) is the inverse schroder function, normalized so that \( h'(0) = 1 \), then

\( a_n = -h^{(n)}(0) h^{-1}(1)^n \)

where 

\( h^{-1}(1)^n(-1)^n > 0 \)

and, as Sheldon mentions, but I haven't seen a fully rigorous proof,

\( h^{(n)}(0)(-1)^{n+1} > 0 \) for \( n \ge 1 \)

therefore \( a_n>0 \). Now it follows that

\( |\alpha \uparrow^2 z - L| \le \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n \lambda^{nx} \le \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n = L -1 \)

and tetration is contained in a disk about \( L \) that lies in the right half plane.



NOW, all I need is \( h^{(n)}(0)(-1)^{n+1} > 0 \) for \( n \ge 1 \). Sheldon has claimed this, but in order to put it in the paper, I'll probably either need to prove it myself, or have a good reference. In a short enough, well thought out manner, that is rigorous enough to put in the finalized version of my paper (credit will be given, of course).
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RE: Does tetration take the right half plane to itself? - by JmsNxn - 05/10/2017, 08:22 PM

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