01/27/2015, 11:18 AM
There is a reason (maybe is a standard) behind the use of the letter "o" in \( f^{o n} \) instead of the "\circ" sign \( f^{\circ n} \)?
Mother Law \(\sigma^+\circ 0=\sigma \circ \sigma^+ \)
\({\rm Grp}_{\rm pt} ({\rm RK}J,G)\cong \mathbb N{\rm Set}_{\rm pt} (J, \Sigma^G)\)
