09/08/2014, 12:56 AM
Dear Sheldon
I read your answer @stackexchange.
I assume your sequences are the derivatives and not the coefficients ?
Otherwise it seems divergent.
I intended to tell mick about the integral of (1-exp(x))/x to get a fake ln(x) or fake 1/x.
---
And then I started wondering about x fake(1/x) , exp(fake(ln(x)) - x etc.
---
I mentioned (1-exp(x))/x before.
However apparantly that was already given a long time at mathoverflow.
(as your link proves).
Its easy to get a fake sqrt from a fake ln.
So the main questions are these :
1) which is the best fake ln(x) ?
integral (1-exp(-x)/x) - C or C_2 * +fake(ln(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) ?
( I use +fake to refer to "our" method of fake functions ; with the positive derivatives )
2) Is there an analogue for the integral of (1 - exp(-x))/x to create a fake sqrt(x) ?
( I do NOT mean exp(fake(ln(x)/2) )
Answers to these will lead to new questions.
I want to remark that +fake(sqrt(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) is very likely a better approximation then exp(+fake(ln(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) / 2).
I also notice we can add variables to our ideas :
1) which is the best fake ln(x) ?
integral(1-exp(- A x)/x) - C or C_2 *+fake(ln(x) exp(B x)) exp(-B x) ?
Which leads to more intresting questions.
Anyways the most intresting is imho :
2) Is there an analogue for the integral of (1 - exp(-x))/x to create a fake sqrt(x) ?
regards
tommy1729
I read your answer @stackexchange.
I assume your sequences are the derivatives and not the coefficients ?
Otherwise it seems divergent.
I intended to tell mick about the integral of (1-exp(x))/x to get a fake ln(x) or fake 1/x.
---
And then I started wondering about x fake(1/x) , exp(fake(ln(x)) - x etc.
---
I mentioned (1-exp(x))/x before.
However apparantly that was already given a long time at mathoverflow.
(as your link proves).
Its easy to get a fake sqrt from a fake ln.
So the main questions are these :
1) which is the best fake ln(x) ?
integral (1-exp(-x)/x) - C or C_2 * +fake(ln(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) ?
( I use +fake to refer to "our" method of fake functions ; with the positive derivatives )
2) Is there an analogue for the integral of (1 - exp(-x))/x to create a fake sqrt(x) ?
( I do NOT mean exp(fake(ln(x)/2) )
Answers to these will lead to new questions.
I want to remark that +fake(sqrt(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) is very likely a better approximation then exp(+fake(ln(x) exp(x)) exp(-x) / 2).
I also notice we can add variables to our ideas :
1) which is the best fake ln(x) ?
integral(1-exp(- A x)/x) - C or C_2 *+fake(ln(x) exp(B x)) exp(-B x) ?
Which leads to more intresting questions.
Anyways the most intresting is imho :
2) Is there an analogue for the integral of (1 - exp(-x))/x to create a fake sqrt(x) ?
regards
tommy1729

