06/06/2014, 09:56 AM
(05/27/2014, 10:55 PM)tommy1729 Wrote: Andy !In fact because he wn't talking about the same thing but about the term Hyperoperation family
Im honored too see your return at my thread !
However I think your post will not remove MphLee's confusion.
Quote:Hope Im more Lucky with my own post.
Maybe you can improve the proof. I dont like it too much now.
regards
tommy1729
I think I've got it, You were playing with the change-of-base formula right? Thanks, now is more clear I guess.
Mother Law \(\sigma^+\circ 0=\sigma \circ \sigma^+ \)
\({\rm Grp}_{\rm pt} ({\rm RK}J,G)\cong \mathbb N{\rm Set}_{\rm pt} (J, \Sigma^G)\)