\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_1(z) \)
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_2(z) \)
SO
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 1 \)
And
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 1 \)
Thus
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) + \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 0 \)
Let \( G(z) = \G(z) = \alpha_1(z) - \alpha_2(z) \)
Then we get
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1))= 0 \)
or
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) = \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) \)
This implies :
\( \text{tet}_b(z) = G^{[-1]}( \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) ) \)
Hence because G^[-1](G(z)) = id(z) is absurd we get ( by branches )
one of the following potential conclusions.
1) G^[-1](G(z)) =/= b^z
And this implies that \( \text{tet}_b(z) \) is a superfunction of 2 functions !!??
2) G^[-1](G(z)) = b^z or G^[-1](G(z)) = b^z + 2pi i / ln(b)
Very unlikely.
Since both potential conclusions are very very likely wrong , this implies
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_1(z) \)
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_2(z) \)
has no solution.
And this idea can easily be generalized to other functions then b^z , such as entire functions with 2 repelling fixpoints.
Hence my pessimistic attitude.
...
------------------------------------------------------------------
But then what did mike and sheldon compute !??
Another fake function ???
Hmmm.
------------------------------------------------------------------
Lets take another look :
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1))= 0 \)
The only hope seems G(z) = p(inv tet_b(z)).
where inv tet_b is the inverse function of tet_b and p is a 1-periodic function.
Or said differently : \( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = p(z) \)
But this seems to bring us back at the beginning : \( p(z) = \theta_1(z) - \theta_2(z) \)
Lets analyze further : in the pessimistic case we wrote
G(tet(z)) = G(tet(z-1))
the key is that if G(z) = p(tet^[-1](z))
We get p(z) = p(z-1).
THIS IS IMPORTANT because we got the hidden paradox :
p(z) = p(z-1)
=> z = p^[-1](p(z-1))
=> z = z - 1.
So the step
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) = \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) \)
This implies :
\( \text{tet}_b(z) = G^{[-1]}( \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) ) \)
Might not be as valid as it might seem.
Hmm.
regards
tommy1729
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_2(z) \)
SO
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 1 \)
And
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 1 \)
Thus
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) + \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) = 0 \)
Let \( G(z) = \G(z) = \alpha_1(z) - \alpha_2(z) \)
Then we get
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1))= 0 \)
or
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) = \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) \)
This implies :
\( \text{tet}_b(z) = G^{[-1]}( \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) ) \)
Hence because G^[-1](G(z)) = id(z) is absurd we get ( by branches )
one of the following potential conclusions.
1) G^[-1](G(z)) =/= b^z
And this implies that \( \text{tet}_b(z) \) is a superfunction of 2 functions !!??
2) G^[-1](G(z)) = b^z or G^[-1](G(z)) = b^z + 2pi i / ln(b)
Very unlikely.
Since both potential conclusions are very very likely wrong , this implies
\( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_1(z) \)
\( \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = z + \theta_2(z) \)
has no solution.
And this idea can easily be generalized to other functions then b^z , such as entire functions with 2 repelling fixpoints.
Hence my pessimistic attitude.
...
------------------------------------------------------------------
But then what did mike and sheldon compute !??
Another fake function ???
Hmmm.
------------------------------------------------------------------
Lets take another look :
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1))= 0 \)
The only hope seems G(z) = p(inv tet_b(z)).
where inv tet_b is the inverse function of tet_b and p is a 1-periodic function.
Or said differently : \( \alpha_1(\text{tet}_b(z)) - \alpha_2(\text{tet}_b(z)) = p(z) \)
But this seems to bring us back at the beginning : \( p(z) = \theta_1(z) - \theta_2(z) \)
Lets analyze further : in the pessimistic case we wrote
G(tet(z)) = G(tet(z-1))
the key is that if G(z) = p(tet^[-1](z))
We get p(z) = p(z-1).
THIS IS IMPORTANT because we got the hidden paradox :
p(z) = p(z-1)
=> z = p^[-1](p(z-1))
=> z = z - 1.
So the step
\( \G(\text{tet}_b(z)) = \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) \)
This implies :
\( \text{tet}_b(z) = G^{[-1]}( \G(\text{tet}_b(z-1)) ) \)
Might not be as valid as it might seem.
Hmm.
regards
tommy1729

