03/12/2013, 10:01 AM
Hi Mr. Helms,
If we consider the solution to the infinite product exp(x) = M * x * f(x) * f^[2](x) *..., it has the same solution as the one we get for M = 1 because of the fraction appears in your calculation which makes M/M = 1. So, it's likely that a factor appears but it seems your calculation doesn't counts it. It seems more like the constant of integration but except that it isn't integration - not very useful, but just my 2 cents.
Balarka
.
If we consider the solution to the infinite product exp(x) = M * x * f(x) * f^[2](x) *..., it has the same solution as the one we get for M = 1 because of the fraction appears in your calculation which makes M/M = 1. So, it's likely that a factor appears but it seems your calculation doesn't counts it. It seems more like the constant of integration but except that it isn't integration - not very useful, but just my 2 cents.
Balarka
.