(06/08/2011, 09:55 AM)bo198214 Wrote: Again similar to the Schröder case, we have an alternative expression:
\( g^t(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} g^{-n}\left(g^n(x)^{2^t}\right) \)
If we even roll back our conjugation with \( 1/x \) we get:
\( f^t(x)=\lim_{n\to\infty} f^{-n}\left(f^n(x)^{2^t}\right) \).
Numerically this also looks very convincing:
Something seems really wrong. These limit formulas are giving me what appears to be abs(x), regardless of the value of t I use.

