05/20/2011, 06:43 PM
That is a really interesting question. First of all, that is one of the bases for which the series expansion of (\exp_b^t(x)) in terms of x is relatively simple with "nice" coefficients, but substituting x=1 (which I think you are talking about) gives a function of t which is not strictly a power series, which makes finding that power series more difficult. Anyways, I believe I have done this before, but I don't have access to my notes right, now, so let me get back to you later today...
Andrew Robbins
Andrew Robbins

