05/08/2011, 08:28 PM
(05/08/2011, 07:54 PM)JmsNxn Wrote: I'm sorry to ask, but how did you get from step 1 to step 2? I don't understand where the \( e^{an} \) went to in the denominator. Otherwise, though, that's a nice proof.
Oh thats just:
\( \frac{1}{e^{an}}(x-e^a)^n=\frac{(x-e^a)^n}{(e^a)^n} = \left(\frac{x-e^a}{e^a}\right)^n = \left(\frac{x}{e^a} - 1\right)^n \)
