An explanation for this?

[tommy1729]

Just wanted to show the similarity and that it seems we can not circumvent the (measurable) Riemann mapping theorem, which gives no closed form coefficients;

??

no closed form coefficients ? Riemann mapping theorem states there is a holomorphic function !?

so we have a taylor series with its coefficients.

and although not trivial , those are computable not ?

i am either confused or disagreeing.

regards

tommy1729