f(x) = f(g(x))
#2
f(x) = f(a(x)) = f(b(x))

when a(x) and b(x) are non-linear it "seems" that a(x) and b(x) need to commute. (*)

in fact P(x) = 2-periodic function ( period a and b )

S(x) => S(a(x)) = S(x) + a , S(b(x)) = S(x) + b

hence S(a(b(x))) = S(b(a(x))) = S(x) + a + b (*)

and

f(x) = P(S(x))

"seems" the only solution.

note that we must have poles in this case because of the 2-periodic function.

however , i mentioned "seems" , because i dont know many counterexamples.

but if

f(x) = f(exp(x))

then f(x) = f(x + 2pi i)

and i excluded that by writing ' nonlinear ' above.

but thats just because i know the following :

f(x) = 1-periodic [(slog(x))]

slog(x) = slog(exp(x)) - 1

slog(x + 2pi i) = slog(exp(x + 2pi i)) -1 = slog(x)

hence f(x) = 1-periodic [(slog(x))] = 1-periodic [(slog(x + 2pi i))]

thus f(x) = f(x + 2pi i)

in the OP i wrote :

**

f(x) = f(g(x))

its a simple equation.

and i talked about it before. as did e.g. gottfried.

in particular for a certain given g(x) the equation is solvable for f(x) by using the super of g(x) and a 1-periodic function...

but that is not the end of the story.

what if f(x) is given and we want to find g(x) ?

well for starters g(x) might not be unique.

if f(x) = f(exp(x)) then we must also have f(x) = f(x + 2pi i)

the pattern is clear

f(x) = f(g(x))

=> g(x) = g(g1(x)) => f(x) = f(g1(x))

and we can now replace g(x) with g1(x) , g1(x) with g2(x) and repeat ...

until we arrive at a moebius function.... if we ever ...

i guess we could call g_n(x) the invariants of f(x).

**

so it seems the g_n are a family of invariants.

now back to the modified (!) equation

f(x) = f(a_n(x)) = f(b_n(x))

where a_n and b_n are not iterations or invariants of eachother.

now it seems that if a_n and b_n are not cyclic iterations , then indeed

P(x) = 2-periodic function ( period a and b )

S(x) => S(a(x)) = S(x) + a , S(b(x)) = S(x) + b

hence S(a(b(x))) = S(b(a(x))) = S(x) + a + b (*)

and

f(x) = P(S(x))

"seems" the only solution....

or not ?

does this rule out ( with the similar above conditions )

f(x) = f(a_n(x)) = f(b_n(x)) = f(c_n(x)) then ?

i think so.

but what about algebraic functions then ?

consider for instance

f(x) = f(alg(x)) and the related alg^[n]alg(x).

more specifly if they have closed forms , such as the following ( with thanks to "achille" )

For p, r, s with p > 0,
Let Q(x) be (p^2-1)*x^2 + 2*(p+1)*r*x + s,
then

f(x) = p*x + sqrt(Q(x)) + r;
=> f^[n](x) = T_n(p)*x + U_{n-1}(p)*sqrt(Q(x)) + r*(T_n(p)-1)/(p-1);

where T_n(p) and U_n(p) are the n-th Chebyshev's
polynomial of first and second kind.

In particular, for (p,r,s) = (3,1,20)

f(x) = 3*x+ 2*sqrt(2*x^2+2*x+5) + 1
=> f^[2](x) = 17*x + 12*sqrt(2*x^2+2*x+5) + 8
f^[3](x) = 99*x + 70*sqrt(2*x^2+2*x+5) + 49
...
f^[n](x) = T_n(3)*x + 2*U_{n-1}(3)*sqrt(2*x^2+2*x+5) + (T_n(3)-1)/2

makes one wonder about equations like

f(x) = f(3*x+ 2*sqrt(2*x^2+2*x+5) + 1)

or more complicated ones !

maybe i just need a good book on invariants or alike :p

regards

tommy1729
Reply


Messages In This Thread
f(x) = f(g(x)) - by tommy1729 - 09/23/2010, 11:20 PM
RE: f(x) = f(g(x)) - by tommy1729 - 12/01/2010, 06:14 PM
RE: f(x) = f(g(x)) - by tommy1729 - 12/02/2010, 01:28 PM
RE: f(x) = f(g(x)) - by tommy1729 - 12/12/2010, 10:02 PM



Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)