(08/30/2010, 09:32 AM)tommy1729 Wrote: let me recap
A is carleman of z.
B is carleman of base^z.
carleman f(z) = A/(1+B)
but why is 1+B invertible for bases > eta ??
Let M=(I+B), W = M^-1;
ß some eigenvalue of B |ß|>1 , µ =ß+1 eigenvalue of M
w = 1/(1+ß) the according eigenvalue of W
- Heuristically it converges when size is increased (no proof yet).
- I suppose: because all |ß|>=1, ==> µ =/= zero,
or equivalently
- 0 < |1/(1+ß)| < 1 for all ß
No proof yet
Gottfried Helms, Kassel

