08/30/2010, 09:32 AM
let me recap
A is carleman of z.
B is carleman of base^z.
carleman f(z) = A/(1+B)
but why is 1+B invertible for bases > eta ??
A is carleman of z.
B is carleman of base^z.
carleman f(z) = A/(1+B)
but why is 1+B invertible for bases > eta ??

