06/12/2010, 04:36 AM
(06/11/2010, 02:23 AM)mike3 Wrote: Thus the idea we can get \( \exp^z(w) \) from \( f^z(w) \) and still have it analytic (don't we want analytic tetration?) seems absurd, because of the extreme difference in the "fractal structure" of their graphs in the complex \( z \)-plane. Just as how the "cheta" method failed. The real version may be "smooth" but I don't think it will be analytic anywhere at all.
Well though by some dubious reason the base change could also be analytic. Just want to say that it is still not proved whether analytic or not. Though it doesnt look like...
