04/02/2010, 07:16 PM
I'll just preface this by saying I'm just a physics undergrad, so this might be a bit beyond my understanding, and I may well be missing something obvious or making a stupid mistake, but while playing around I noticed that it seems to be true that
\( ^{n}a\text{ mod }b= {}^{m}a\text{ mod }b \)
\( \text{For }^{n}a,{}^{m}a > b,\text{ }a,b,n,m \in \mathbb{N} \)
Is this actually true? And if so is there a proof of it I'll be able to wrap my mind around?
\( ^{n}a\text{ mod }b= {}^{m}a\text{ mod }b \)
\( \text{For }^{n}a,{}^{m}a > b,\text{ }a,b,n,m \in \mathbb{N} \)
Is this actually true? And if so is there a proof of it I'll be able to wrap my mind around?
