??? D^2 tetration ???
#1
could it be true that by andrew robbins method :

f(x) = 2^f(x-1) f(0) = 1 ( coo base 2 tetration thus )

g(x) = df^2/dx^2 f(x)

g(0) = 0 ???


regards

tommy1729
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Messages In This Thread
??? D^2 tetration ??? - by tommy1729 - 11/11/2009, 11:58 PM
RE: ??? D^2 tetration ??? - by andydude - 11/13/2009, 12:02 AM



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