f( f(x) ) = exp(x) solved ! ! !

[bo198214]

I am not here to find more and more refined counterexamples.
Perhaps there is a misunderstanding: The counterexample was to show that your "proof" is deficient, not to show that your method is wrong. Actually I dont know whether it works, and I dont even have a hint, because there are no pictures provided. So if you can not prove it, why not convince us with some graphs of your approximation functions that show them converging?

PS: And please dont quote everything, but only the part you are replying to. There are

Code:

[quote]

and

Code:

[/quote]

that enclose each quote.