05/22/2008, 10:48 AM
Ivars Wrote:Not that I would know it, but would it not be more logical that in general case:
\( \text{ilog}(f\circ g)=g*\text{ilog}(f)+f*\text{ilog}(g) \)?
Perhaps there is a value of t/definition of \( \text{ilog}(f) \) where multipliers g and f disappear.
Dont know what you mean. This law is in correspondence with the normal logarithmic law:
\( \ln(a\cdot b)=\ln(a)+\ln(b) \)
The iterative logarithm is supposed to behave similar by swapping multiplication with composition.
