05/22/2008, 09:02 AM
bo198214 Wrote:\( \text{ilog}(f\circ g)=\text{ilog}(f)+\text{ilog}(g) \)
Not that I would know it, but would it not be more logical that in general case:
\( \text{ilog}(f\circ g)=g*\text{ilog}(f)+f*\text{ilog}(g) \)?
Perhaps there is a value of t/definition of \( \text{ilog}(f) \) where multipliers g and f disappear.
Ivars
