01/24/2026, 12:24 PM
Forgive me, but as I said, I'm not even remotely qualified to answer this. From a bypasser pov I had the impression that that theory was only used for treating the multiplier=1 case.
Mother Law \(\sigma^+\circ 0=\sigma \circ \sigma^+ \)
\({\rm Grp}_{\rm pt} ({\rm RK}J,G)\cong \mathbb N{\rm Set}_{\rm pt} (J, \Sigma^G)\)
