03/07/2023, 05:10 PM
(03/05/2023, 01:26 PM)marcokrt Wrote: we have that \( V(0):=0 \), since \(^N 0 = 0 \) iff \( N \) is odd and \(^N 0 = 1 \) otherwise.
In my personal opinion, this conclusion is sufficient.
Of course further discussion about the definition of V(0) is also interesting!
Quote:So, the best answer to your question above cannot ignore our preliminary assumption based on the fact that \( V(0) \in \mathbb{Z} \) definition, while it would be not even be an element \( \mathbb{R} \) by construction... otherwise the "constant congruence speed analysis" cannot be taken as a way to solve related problems in the p-adics.
And the interesting point is that \( V(0)\not\in\mathbb{Q}_p \not\Leftrightarrow V(0)\not\in\mathbb{R} \not\Leftrightarrow V(0)\not\in\mathbb{C}\not\Leftrightarrow V(0)\not\in\Omega_p \), \( (\mathbb{R},\mathbb{C} ) \) unequal we have seen in the standard Tetration, and the rest of the unequality is a simple known fact.

