OKAY!
We got the big boy guns proof right now!
I knew it was staring me right in the face!
Let:
\[
f_{\theta}^{\circ s}(z) = z\lim_{q\to\infty} \frac{d^{\frac{s}{q} + 2 \pi i s \frac{p}{q}}}{dx^{\frac{s}{q} + 2 \pi i s \frac{p}{q}}}\Big{|}_{x=0} e^{e^{i\theta q}x} + O(z^2)\\
\]
This produces a solution to cauchy's equation:
\[
\frac{\partial f_\theta^{\circ s}}{\partial \overline{z}} = 0\\
\]
Or rather that:
\[
\frac{d}{dz} f^{\circ s}_{\theta}(z)
\]
Always exists for \(|z| < \delta\) for small enough \(\delta>0\).
This works for \(\Im(\theta) > 0\)!!!!!! And proves this limit always converges!
This is a fairly deep referenced result, especially as I've set things up. But if a mellin/laplace/fourier transform, is holomorphic in a neighborhood of a point, then the integral converges. This is one of the biggest selling points of these transforms. If \(f_{\theta^*}(z)\) is holomorphic at \(z=0\) (it has a holomorphic derivative in a neighborhood), and additionally the holomorphic derivative converges to \(f_\theta(z)\), then the actual function converges under the transform. Point and Case is a paper on the Prime Number Theorem in recent years (https://people.mpim-bonn.mpg.de/zagier/f...lltext.pdf LOOK SPECIFICALLY AT THE ANALYTIC THEOREM AND PROOF OF ANALYTIC THEOREM; we're in the same boat but with the mellin transform instead of Laplace, and we have to track another variable (which is easy as it looks like)). They use a result stating that if a function \(F(s)\) is holomorphic for \(\Re(s) > 0\), and is Laplace representable, then if it can be analytically continued to \(\Re(s) \ge 0\), then the transform converges on the line \(\Re(s) = 0\).
So if:
\[
H(y) = \int_{0}^\infty h(x)e^{-yx}\,dx\\
\]
And the integral converges for \(\Re(y) > 0\).... Assume that \(H(y)\) is analytically continuable to \(\Re(y) \ge 0\), so that at each point \(y_0\) where \(\Re(y_0) =0\), the function \(H(y)\) is holomorphic at \(y_0\). Then the following integral converges:
\[
H(y_0) = \int_0^\infty h(x) e^{-y_0x}\,dx\\
\]
Which is to say, if the extended Laplace transform is holomorphic on the whole boundary, then the integral converges at each point on the boundary.... Mellin is just fancy Laplace/ fancy Fourier.....
This is a statement that on the boundary, if there is a holomorphic function on the boundary, that at the boundary, not only does the function converge, it converges to the holomorphic boundary function.
So since \(f_{\theta^*}\) can be mellin transformed, and everything is holomorphic and perfect. And we can construct perfect holomorphic function extensions for \(f_\theta\); we must have that \(f_{\theta^*} \to f_\theta\), not only as holomorphic functions, but also underneath the integral. So that the integral expression converges.
Now, all we need to do this in this case, is to ensure that the derivative \(\frac{d}{dz}\) is a viable action; which solves all of our problems.
I'm being kind of vague right now, but I think this does it. And solves entirely the \(\theta^* \to \theta\) problem, at least for \(\Im(\theta) > 0\)--we might have problems for \(\Im(\theta) = 0\). But a similar work around should work.
We got the big boy guns proof right now!
I knew it was staring me right in the face!
Let:
\[
f_{\theta}^{\circ s}(z) = z\lim_{q\to\infty} \frac{d^{\frac{s}{q} + 2 \pi i s \frac{p}{q}}}{dx^{\frac{s}{q} + 2 \pi i s \frac{p}{q}}}\Big{|}_{x=0} e^{e^{i\theta q}x} + O(z^2)\\
\]
This produces a solution to cauchy's equation:
\[
\frac{\partial f_\theta^{\circ s}}{\partial \overline{z}} = 0\\
\]
Or rather that:
\[
\frac{d}{dz} f^{\circ s}_{\theta}(z)
\]
Always exists for \(|z| < \delta\) for small enough \(\delta>0\).
This works for \(\Im(\theta) > 0\)!!!!!! And proves this limit always converges!
This is a fairly deep referenced result, especially as I've set things up. But if a mellin/laplace/fourier transform, is holomorphic in a neighborhood of a point, then the integral converges. This is one of the biggest selling points of these transforms. If \(f_{\theta^*}(z)\) is holomorphic at \(z=0\) (it has a holomorphic derivative in a neighborhood), and additionally the holomorphic derivative converges to \(f_\theta(z)\), then the actual function converges under the transform. Point and Case is a paper on the Prime Number Theorem in recent years (https://people.mpim-bonn.mpg.de/zagier/f...lltext.pdf LOOK SPECIFICALLY AT THE ANALYTIC THEOREM AND PROOF OF ANALYTIC THEOREM; we're in the same boat but with the mellin transform instead of Laplace, and we have to track another variable (which is easy as it looks like)). They use a result stating that if a function \(F(s)\) is holomorphic for \(\Re(s) > 0\), and is Laplace representable, then if it can be analytically continued to \(\Re(s) \ge 0\), then the transform converges on the line \(\Re(s) = 0\).
So if:
\[
H(y) = \int_{0}^\infty h(x)e^{-yx}\,dx\\
\]
And the integral converges for \(\Re(y) > 0\).... Assume that \(H(y)\) is analytically continuable to \(\Re(y) \ge 0\), so that at each point \(y_0\) where \(\Re(y_0) =0\), the function \(H(y)\) is holomorphic at \(y_0\). Then the following integral converges:
\[
H(y_0) = \int_0^\infty h(x) e^{-y_0x}\,dx\\
\]
Which is to say, if the extended Laplace transform is holomorphic on the whole boundary, then the integral converges at each point on the boundary.... Mellin is just fancy Laplace/ fancy Fourier.....
This is a statement that on the boundary, if there is a holomorphic function on the boundary, that at the boundary, not only does the function converge, it converges to the holomorphic boundary function.
So since \(f_{\theta^*}\) can be mellin transformed, and everything is holomorphic and perfect. And we can construct perfect holomorphic function extensions for \(f_\theta\); we must have that \(f_{\theta^*} \to f_\theta\), not only as holomorphic functions, but also underneath the integral. So that the integral expression converges.
Now, all we need to do this in this case, is to ensure that the derivative \(\frac{d}{dz}\) is a viable action; which solves all of our problems.
I'm being kind of vague right now, but I think this does it. And solves entirely the \(\theta^* \to \theta\) problem, at least for \(\Im(\theta) > 0\)--we might have problems for \(\Im(\theta) = 0\). But a similar work around should work.


I'm kind of note dumping right now. But I think I'm on to something, lmao!