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What am I doing wrong here? - Printable Version +- Tetration Forum (https://tetrationforum.org) +-- Forum: Tetration and Related Topics (https://tetrationforum.org/forumdisplay.php?fid=1) +--- Forum: Mathematical and General Discussion (https://tetrationforum.org/forumdisplay.php?fid=3) +--- Thread: What am I doing wrong here? (/showthread.php?tid=630) |
What am I doing wrong here? - JmsNxn - 05/12/2011 I was looking at tetration and considering its little taylor series, given by: (1) \( sexp(x) = \bigtriangleup \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n + n(x \bigtriangledown l) - ln(n!) \) where: \( \bigtriangleup \sum_{n=0}^{r} f(n)= f(0) \bigtriangleup f(1) \bigtriangleup...{f®} \) and: \( x \bigtriangleup y= \ln(e^x + e^y) \) \( x \bigtriangledown y = \ln(e^x - e^y) \) specifically, what I was trying to do is find a relationship between the coefficients of tetrations' little taylor series and normal taylor series. We'll say: \( sexp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} b_n \frac{(x-l)^n}{n!} \) so I'm looking for \( b_n \) as an expression of \( a_n \) or vice versa. So I started off by looking at (1): \( sexp(x) = \bigtriangleup \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n + n(x \bigtriangledown l) - ln(n!) \) \( sexp(x) = ln(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{a_n + n(x \bigtriangledown l) - ln(n!)}) \) \( sexp(x+1) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{a_n} \frac{(e^x - e^l)^n}{n!} \) and now let this equal our formula for sexp(x+1) using \( b_n \) or the normal taylor series. \( \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{a_n} \frac{(e^x - e^l)^n}{n!} = \sum_{d=0}^{\infty} b_d \frac{(x+1-l)^d}{d!} \) and subtract the right hand side from the left hand side \( \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{e^{a_n}(e^x - e^l)^n - b_n (x+1-l)^n}{n!} = 0 \) and now, since x is essentially arbitrary, let x = l to give: \( \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{b_n}{n!} = 0 \) but this contradicts the original Taylor series expansion \( sexp(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} b_n \frac{(x-l)^n}{n!} \) which states: \( \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{b_n}{n!} = sexp(l+1) \) Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks. The only solution I have is \( l = -2 \) RE: What am I doing wrong here? - bo198214 - 05/21/2011 (05/12/2011, 07:53 PM)JmsNxn Wrote: \( x \bigtriangledown y = \ln(e^x - e^y) \) One problem could be that if you let x=l then \( x \bigtriangledown l = -\infty \). And calculating with infinities is always somewhat risky. RE: What am I doing wrong here? - JmsNxn - 05/26/2011 oh, that's obvious there in the first equation. I hate missing stuff that's right in front of me. yeah, I've really started to notice that infinity is difficult to work with. It frustrated me at first but then I realize it comes with the territory. |